A 41-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea for 9 mo.She is found to have a prolactin secreting pituitary adenoma. Laboratory data reveals a serum calcium level of 12.0 mg/dL and hypoglycemia (serum glucose of 49 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a.MEN 1 syndrome
  • b.MEN 2A syndrome
  • c.MEN 2B syndrome
  • d.Sipple syndrome

The answer is (a).  The patient most likely has multiple endocrine neoplasia or MEN 1(Wermer syndrome), an autosomal dominant disorder, consisting of tumors of the Pancreas, Pituitary, and Parathyroid gland (PPP).
MEN 2A(Sipple syndrome) consists of Pheochromocytoma, hyperParathyroidism, and medullary carcinoma of the Thyroid (PPT). Patients with MEN 2B syndrome present with Pheochromocytoma, Neuromas, and medullary carcinoma of the Thyroid (PNT).